Let $f\left(x\right)=f\left(a-x\right)\text{and}g\left(x\right)+g\left(a-x\right)=4then{\int }_0^{a}f\left(x\right)g\left(x\right)dx$ is equal to (A) $2{\int }_0^{a}f\left(x\right)dx$ (B) ${\int }_0^{a}f\left(x\right)dx$ (C) $4{\int }_0^{a}f\left(x\right)dx$ (D) $0$

Stuck on the question or explanation?

Connect with our maths tutors online and get step by step solution of this question.